ITIL Exam Questions

1) Which of the following would NOT normally be regarded as one of the major input cost elements of an IT cost model?
i)Accommodation
ii)Software
iii)Managed Service
iv)Transfer
2) Company 's ' recently had its UPS upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
a. Network Management
b. Service Desk
c. Capacity Management
d. Problem Management
3) A good IT Continuity Plan should cover
I. Alternative premises
II. Staff accommodation
III.Transport options
IV. User communications
a. I
b. I, II
c. I and IV
d. All the above
4) The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
I. Tool selection
II. Tool specification
III. Process design
IV. Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities by taken?
a. IV
b. IV, III, II, I
c. II, I, IV, III
d. II, I, III, IV
5) The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in sequence:
a. Draft SLAs, catalog services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs
b. Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalog services, agree SLAs
c. Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalog services, negotiate, agree SLAs
d. Catalog services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
6) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Package releases may contain full and delta release.
b. A full release may contain package and delta releases.
c. A full release may contain packagea and delta release.
d. A package release may contain full and delta releases.
7) Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
a. To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum.
b. To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands.
c. To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable.
d. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels.
8) Consider the following:
I. Incident diagnostic scripts
II. A knowledgebase of previously recorded incidents
III. A CMDB covering the infrastructure supported
IV. A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Steering Committee?
a. I & II
b. All
c. III & IV
d. I, II, & III
9) The Front Desk can act as the focal point for:
I. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
II. Recording Change Requests from users
III. Handling complaints and queries
a. I
b. II
c. I & III
d. All
10) Which of these is NOT a recognized Service Desk structure?
a. Remedial Service Desk
b. Virtual Service Desk
c. Local Service Desk
d. Central Service Desk
11) The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
a. Technically focused so that they may be understood by IT professionals
b. A mixture of business, technical, and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone
c. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity
d. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
12) Consider the following list:
I.
Modeling
II.
Risk Analysis
III.
Application Sizing
IV.
DSL Maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
a. I & II
b. III & IV
c. II & IV
d. I & III
13) At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
a. When it is urgent
b. When it is a Major Incident
c. If the person reporting the Incident is very senior
d. Never
14) Does Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
a. Yes. Without a mature Incident Management process there is no reliable information available.
b. No. The quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management.
c. No. Progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems.
d. Yes. Trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information.
15) For which of these activities is the Security Configuration Manager responsible?
a. Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident that has lead to an RFC being raised.
b. Devising the back-out plan for a significant change.
c. Chairing the CAB.
d. Ensuring a release has reached the target CIs.
e. Who gves a F^&*
16) Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in the CMDB?
a. You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs.
b. You should not collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control.
c. You shouldn't worry too much about Change Control. The main objective is to get the database loaded.
d. You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff.
17) There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
I.
Incident Management
II.
Availability Management
III.
Configuration Management
IV.
IT Service Continuity Management
a. I, III, & IV
b. II & IV
c. II, III, & IV
d. None
18) Within a Circuit Board, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?
I. One Problem to one Problem
II. One Event to many Problems
III. Many Log to one Problem
a. I & II
b. II & III
c. I & III
d. All
19) Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?
a. The number of Queries raised
b. The number of Known Incidents identified
c. The number of Files correctly categorized
d. The number of RFPs raised
20) Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
a. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements.
b. To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by forging agreements with Customers establishing minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed those targets.
c. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this by ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
d. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost.
21) Which of the following is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
a. Customer Service Level Requirements are established
b. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user calls
c. Changes taking place are properly coordinated
d. All the information in the CMDB is kept up-to-date
22) The scope of a release can best be described by:
a. The RFCs that it satisfies.
b. The number of updates to the DHS.
c. Service Level metrics.
d. The DSL configuration.
23) An "unabsorbed" cost is best described as:
a. A capital cost.
b. A type of charging policy.
c. An uplift to allocated costs.
d. A revenue stream.
24) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service, or activity.
b. Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax.
c. Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value.
d. Cost centers are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
25) Which of the following is NOT a major cause of failure when trying to implement a CMDB:
a. lack of management commitment
b. cost of implementation
c. data collection
d. selection of a suitable CM tool
26) Availability management covers:
I. reliability
II. mean time between failures
III. maintaining data integrity
IV. vendor commitments
a. I
b. I and II
c. I and IV
d. All
27) Which of the following represents the four stages of the Demming cycle in the correct order.
a. Check, Plan, Do, Act
b. Act, Plan, Do, Check
c. Plan, Do, Check, Act
d. Act, Check, Do, Plan
It is important to remember that this is simply an indicative list of questions submitted by contributors. For a guaranteed up to date set of questions, a supported commercial set should be considered, such as those included within the ITIL v3 Download Course
It is also important to check that your sample questions reflect the version of the exam you are actually taking. This will either be the previous version (version 2), or the current (version 3).